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In English language, Why do we use the letters "Ph" while there's the letter "F" to pronounce the same sound ??
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Asked 12/4/2009 12:02:58 PM
Updated 12/4/2009 11:09:28 PM
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Words which use 'ph' to mean 'f' are normally of Greek in origin and are usually presented because of a transliteration problem (Transliteration means changing from one alphabet to another).
Added 12/4/2009 2:15:52 PM
Phi (uppercase F, lowercase f or math symbol ), in modern Greek and or sometimes in English, is the 21st letter of the Greek alphabetGreek alphabetThe Greek alphabet is a set of twenty-four letters that has been used to write the Greek language since the late 9th or early 8th century BCE. It is the first and oldest alphabet in the narrow sense that it notes each vowel and consonant with a separate symbol. It is as such in continuous use to...
. In modern Greek, it represents , a voiceless labiodental fricativeVoiceless labiodental fricativeThe voiceless labiodental fricative is a type of consonantal sound, used in some spoken languages. The symbol in the International Phonetic Alphabet that represents this sound is , and the equivalent X-SAMPA symbol is f.-Features:...
. In Ancient Greek it represented , an aspiratedAspiration (phonetics)In phonetics, aspiration is the strong burst of air that accompanies either the release or, in the case of preaspiration, the closure of some obstruents. To feel or see the difference between aspirated and unaspirated sounds, one can put a hand or a lit candle in front of one's mouth, and say tore ...
voiceless bilabial plosiveVoiceless bilabial plosiveThe voiceless bilabial plosive is a type of consonantal sound used in many spoken languages. The symbol in the International Phonetic Alphabet that represents this sound is , and the equivalent X-SAMPA symbol is p. The voiceless bilabial plosive in English is spelled with 'p', as in pit or...
(from which English ultimately inherits the spelling "ph" in words derived from Greek).
Added 12/4/2009 11:09:28 PM
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