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Q: Is there ever a reason for a citizen of any country to reject obeying the laws of the land if those rulers do not uphold that country s values and self-regulations? Whether your response is Yes or
No, please provide reasoning for your answer by explaining your answer in terms of your worldview.
A: Few issues in jurisprudence have received so much attention in recent years as whether citizens have a distinctive moral duty to obey the law. Yet the differences among the disputants might well seem slender to the unprofessional eye. [ [ No one holds that the duty is absolute: even its most passionate advocates allow that it is sometimes morally permissible to disobey the law,! as when
abolitionists aided runaway slaves before the American Civil War. But neither does anyone advocate open or frequent disobedience. Those who doubt the supposed duty yet hold that we very often have a strong moral reason to do what the law requires independently of its commands, e.g., not to assault, cheat or rob others. ] ]
clarebelle79|Points 180|
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Asked 7/20/2013 9:52:57 AM
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