You have new items in your feed. Click to view.
Question and answer
How was Bismarck able to defeat France? a. Bismarck had superior weapons and technology. c. France had an inferior naval fleet. b. Bismarck had more man power. d. Bismarck used deception to win
allies against France.
How was Bismarck able to defeat France? a. Bismarck had superior weapons and technology
Expert answered|selymi|Points 9536|
Question
Asked 12/4/2012 11:02:21 AM
Updated 10/30/2013 7:59:01 AM
1 Answer/Comment
Get an answer
New answers
Rating
0
The Correct answer is D. Bismarck used deception to win allies against France.
Added 10/30/2013 7:59:01 AM
Comments

There are no comments.

Add an answer or comment
Log in or sign up first.
25,945,489 questions answered
Weegy Stuff
S
Points 677 [Total 748] Ratings 4 Comments 637 Invitations 0 Online
S
1
L
Points 566 [Total 1400] Ratings 3 Comments 536 Invitations 0 Offline
S
L
P
P
P
P
Points 502 [Total 3757] Ratings 0 Comments 502 Invitations 0 Offline
S
Points 107 [Total 107] Ratings 0 Comments 107 Invitations 0 Offline
S
Points 58 [Total 285] Ratings 0 Comments 58 Invitations 0 Offline
S
L
P
P
P
Points 46 [Total 3862] Ratings 0 Comments 46 Invitations 0 Offline
S
Points 40 [Total 45] Ratings 0 Comments 0 Invitations 4 Offline
S
Points 15 [Total 15] Ratings 0 Comments 5 Invitations 1 Offline
S
L
C
Points 11 [Total 4491] Ratings 1 Comments 1 Invitations 0 Offline
S
Points 10 [Total 10] Ratings 1 Comments 0 Invitations 0 Offline
* Excludes moderators and previous
winners (Include)
Home | Contact | Blog | About | Terms | Privacy | © Purple Inc.